Who is "OUR"??
1My little children, these things write I unto you, that ye sin not. And if any man sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous: 2And he is the propitiation for OUR sins: and not for OURS only, but also for the sins of the whole world. (1 John 2)Is "OUR" all the Christians reading the book throughout time?
Is "OUR" a specific group of Christians only?
Is "OUR" the Jewish believers?
Is "OUR" Jewish people in general?
Is "OUR" the apostle and those with whom he ministered?
Who is John writing to? If we look at chapter one, he doesn't really say exactly who he is writing to. It seems to me that he is writing to believers. I know others don't hold that as necessarily true, though!
But if we do hold that he is writing to believers, then who are the other people for whom Christ is the propitiation? In my view, I think John is speaking of the believers when he says that Christ is the proppitiation for our sins, and he goes on to say that he is also the propitiation for the sins of everybody else in the world. In unlimited atonement, this is not a problem.
In order for that sentence to say something else, then I would think you would have to hold to an idea that the "OUR" in that verse is some smaller group of believers, like middle-eastern believers only. Then it could be saying "Christ is not the propitiation for our sins, those of us who live in the middle east, but for the sins of those who will come to believe all over the world. Am I getting that? What say you?
Side note: regarding the view that holds to point 3 and 5 of TULIP, if Chapter 1 is a warning to pretenders or a test of salvation, written to the unbeliever in the church, then how does it gel with looking at "OUR" in chapter 2 as a specific group consisting of believers only? Either the book is to a mixed multitude or it isn't. Just some food for thought. Please share your thoughts.