More Problems with that Video
The Lord is not slack concerning His promise, as some count slackness, but is longsuffering toward us, not willing that any should perish but that all should come to repentance. (2 Peter 3:9)All does NOT always mean all. So says the man in the video. But first let's look at what he says regarding the words some, any and ceratin ones.
It seems tis which is the Greek word for some in the above verse is the same as the word for any. So, the Greek might be saying "God is not willing that some men should perish", or "God is not willing that certain ones should perish." I did a little thinking and looking regarding this. If the writer had wanted to say that God was not willing that certain ones should perish, he might have chosen the Greek word ekloge. The word tis doesn't carry a specificity to it, from what I could tell. It might just as well say, "God is not willing that men should perish." His idea regarding any is very weak. I think this teacher has distorted what the apostle Peter was telling his friends.
What I thought was much more interesting was the man's presentation on the word all. The verse says that God wants ALL to come to repentance. The word for all is the Greek word pas. The man in the video tells us that the Greek Lexicon wants us to know that the word pas does not always mean all and even when it is translated world or the whole world it doesn;t include all the people in the world. He gives us some verses to prove this to us. Here they are:
Now, the problem with this reasoning seems obvious to me. The first verse, John 12:19, is using the "whole world" as hyperbole. The pharisees MEANT to say "the whole world" ... absolutely. They meant it to show that a lot of people were involved. They were exaggerating, wouldn't you say? So if I exaggerate when I say I have no money, does that mean that the homeless guy on the corner does not really mean it when he says he has no money?
The Pharisees therefore said among themselves, “You see that you are accomplishing nothing. Look, the world has gone after Him!” (John 12:19)
We know that we are of God, and the whole world lies under the sway of the wicked one. (1 John 5:19)
Then all the land of Judea, and those from Jerusalem, went out to him and were all baptized by him in the Jordan River, confessing their sins. (Mark 1:5)
In 1 John, John is saying that the totality of people who are not of God are under the sway of the wicked one. I don't see a problem with that statement from John. I think he means what he says there.
In Mark 1:5, Mark is using the word all, casually, as a narrative device, to say that a lot of poeple were being baptized. This is allowed in a narrative. It is common. We use figures of speech even today. We exaggerate.
I believe there is a difference between a quote from the Pharisees or a casual narrative and doctrinal teaching from Peter, John and Paul in the NT. When men are referred to and there is not an descriptive clause that specifies a certain group, like "all of those who believe" or "all Jewish men" or "all who call upon the name of the Lord" then it seems clear the writer means to say all men.
Now, to insist that because in the first and third instances above, the writers didn't really mean "the totality of mankind" when they used the words all and world ... to then cast doubt on whether Peter is meaning all when he says all ... is suspect. Peter is not using hyperbole. He simply says God is not willing that men should perish, but that all should come to repentance. Why would Peter mean something other than all? Furthermore, if he meant to say that God is willing that few should come to repentance, or even that many should come, he could have chosen one of the Greek words that specifically mean few or many: oligos (few) or polus (many). The man in the video says that some people are hoping to mistranslate the verse, but I have yet to locate a translation that words the verse the way he does. (I think he meant to say "interpret" rather than "translate"?) A plain and normal hermenuetic renders the word all as all and apparently a plain and normal translation renders the word pas as all in this verse.
All means all in the following verses, wouldn't we agree? (It is the same Greek word pas)
...even the righteousness of God, through faith in Jesus Christ, to all and on all who believe. For there is no difference; for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God... (Romans 3:22, 23)
Therefore, just as sin entered the world through one man, and death through sin, and in this way death came to all men, because all sinned ... (Romans 5:12)
All wrongdoing is sin ... (1 John 5:17)
Would the above uses of pas be just talking about certain men or ceratin sins? Of course not. It is talking about all men and all sin.
Finally, in regards to this video presentation, I think it was quite interesting that the teacher went about to prove that the word pas does not mean all in the 1 Peter 3:9, that he was disssecting and re-translating, but then ... the video is ended by quoting some more great verses that employ the word pas or all. I am certain that the teacher does believe the words in the following verses indeed mean all of those it regards.
All that the Father gives me will come to me, and whoever comes to me I will never drive away. (John 6:37)I want to end by pointing out that the word whoever in the following verse is also the word pas ... the same as the word for all. Thank God, or else only some of us or many of us who believe in Him would have everlasting life. Language means something.
My Father, who has given them to Me, is greater than all; and no one is able to snatch them out of My Father’s hand. (John 10:29)
And all Mine are Yours, and Yours are Mine, and I am glorified in them. (John 17:10)
For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him should not perish but have everlasting life. (John 3:16)